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NEW QUESTION # 159
Which of the following is not called volatile data?
- A. The date and time of the system
- B. Creation dates off les
- C. Open sockets or open ports
- D. State of the network interface
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 160
During a security review, the IT team of a logistics company using smart RFID-enabled gateways detects automated scripts repeatedly targeting credential interfaces. To reduce the risk of repeated access from unauthorized sources, which security feature should be implemented?
- A. Apply uniform manufacturer-set credentials across similar infrastructure devices.
- B. Retain authentication event data exclusively on individual endpoint storage.
- C. Configure automatic lock mechanisms following multiple failed verification attempts.
- D. Permit persistent session restoration for previously authenticated endpoints.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Automatic lockout after repeated failed verification attempts helps stop automated credential- guessing activity against access interfaces. This reduces the chance that scripts can continue trying credentials until they gain unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION # 161
Mike is an incident handler for PNP Infosystems Inc. One day, there was a ticket submitted regarding a critical incident and Mike was assigned to handle the incident. During the process of incident handling, at one stage, he performed incident analysis and validation to check whether the incident is a genuine incident or a false positive.
Identify the stage he is currently in.
- A. Incident triage
- B. Post-incident activities
- C. Incident disclosure
- D. Incident recording and assignment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Incident triage is the stage in the incident response process where the incident handler, like Mike, performs an initial assessment of the reported incident to determine its validity, severity, and potential impact. This includes analyzing the incident to verify if it is a genuine threat or a false positive. The purpose of incident triage is to prioritize incidents based on their criticality and ensure that resources are allocated effectively to address the most serious threats first. This stage is crucial for efficient incident management, as it helps in filtering out false alarms and focusing on real security incidents that require immediate attention.
References:The ECIH v3 curriculum covers the incident response lifecycle, including the importance of incident triage as a key step in ensuring that incident handling efforts are focused on genuine security incidents, thereby optimizing the response process.
NEW QUESTION # 162
According to the Fourth Amendment of USA PATRIOT Act of 2001; if a search does NOT violate a person's "reasonable" or "legitimate" expectation of privacy then it is considered:
- A. Illegal/ illegitimate
- B. None of the above
- C. Constitutional/ Legitimate
- D. Unethical
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 163
Robert is an incident handler working for Xsecurity Inc. One day, his organization faced a massive cyberattack and all the websites related to the organization went offline. Robert was on duty during the incident and he was responsible to handle the incident and maintain business continuity. He immediately restored the web application service with the help of the existing backups.
According to the scenario, which of the following stages of incident handling and response (IH&R) process does Robert performed?
- A. Recovery
- B. Eradication
- C. Evidence gathering and forensics analysis
- D. Notification
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 164
To effectively describe security incidents, it is necessary to adopt a common set of terminology and to categorize the incidents.
According to ECIH text, in which category would you place an incident that involves illegal file download by a suspected or unknown user?
- A. Ultra High Level
- B. High level
- C. Low Level
- D. Middle level
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 165
Elizabeth, who works for OBC organization as an incident responder, is assessing the risks to the organizational security. As part of the assessment process, she is calculating the probability of a threat source exploiting an existing system vulnerability.
Which of the following risk assessment steps is Elizabeth currently in?
- A. Likelihood analysis
- B. Vulnerability identification
- C. Impact analysis
- D. System characterization
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 166
Lena, a SOC analyst, observes a pattern of unusual login attempts originating from multiple foreign IP addresses tied to shared drive links circulating within the organization. These links were embedded in emails appearing to come from the HR department and marked with urgent subject lines. Upon deeper inspection, Lena finds multiple similar messages still pending in the mail server's delivery queue. To prevent widespread exposure, she takes immediate action to eliminate these messages before they reach employees' inboxes.
Which incident response action best describes Lena's action?
- A. Initiating forensic triage on suspicious attachments
- B. Flagging login anomalies for correlation in the SIEM
- C. Preemptively purging queued phishing emails from the server
- D. Isolating compromised mailboxes from the email relay
Answer: C
Explanation:
This scenario demonstrates a preventive containment action during an email security incident. The ECIH Email Security Incident Handling module emphasizes that once phishing is identified, responders should immediately prevent further delivery to reduce organizational exposure.
Option A is correct because Lena removes malicious emails from the mail server's delivery queue before users receive them. This action directly reduces risk by preventing additional users from clicking malicious links or submitting credentials. ECIH identifies email purging as a critical containment technique during active phishing campaigns.
Option B is an investigative action, not containment. Option C applies after delivery and compromise. Option D addresses already compromised accounts rather than preventing exposure.
By stopping malicious emails before delivery, Lena aligns with ECIH best practices for rapid containment of email-based threats.
NEW QUESTION # 167
Oscar receives an email from an unknown source containing his domain name oscar.com. Upon checking the link, he found that it contains a malicious URL that redirects to the website evilsite.org.
What type of vulnerability is this?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Bolen
- C. Malware
- D. Unvalidated redirects and forwards
Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario described, where Oscar receives an email with a link that contains a malicious URL redirecting to evilsite.org, exemplifies a vulnerability related to unvalidated redirects and forwards.
This type of vulnerability occurs when a web application accepts untrusted input that could cause the web application to redirect the request to a URL contained within untrusted input. Attackers can exploit this vulnerability by crafting a malicious URL that leads unsuspecting users to phishing sites or other malicious websites, under the guise of a legitimate domain. This is distinct from malware, which refers to malicious software; SQL injection, which involves inserting malicious SQL queries through input fields to manipulate or exploit databases; and is not a term related to cybersecurity vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 168
A user downloaded what appears to be genuine software. Unknown to her, when she installed the application, it executed code that provided an unauthorized remote attacker access to her computer. What type of malicious threat displays this characteristic?
- A. Spyware
- B. Backdoor
- C. Virus
- D. Trojan
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 169
Which of the following is an attack that occurs when a malicious program causes a user's browser to perform man unwanted action on a trusted site for which the user is currently authenticated?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Insecure direct object references
- C. Cross-site request forgery
- D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 170
Introduction of malicious programs on to the device connected to the campus network (Trojan Horse, email bombs, virus, etc.) is called?
- A. Network Access
- B. Inappropriate Usage
- C. Un authorize Access
- D. Authorize Access
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 171
Rinni is an incident handler and she is performing memory dump analysis.
Which of following tools she can use in order to perform memory dump analysis?
- A. Procmon and ProcessExplorer
- B. OllyDbg and IDA Pro
- C. Scylla and OllyDumpEx
- D. iNetSim
Answer: B
Explanation:
For memory dump analysis, tools like Scylla and OllyDumpEx are more suited. These tools are designed to analyze and extract information from memory dumps, which can be crucial for understanding the state of a system at the time of an incident. Scylla is used for reconstructing imports in dumped binaries, while OllyDumpEx is an OllyDbg plugin used for dumping process memory. Both tools are valuable for incident handlers like Rinni who are performing memory dump analysis to uncover evidence or understand the behavior of malicious software.
NEW QUESTION # 172
An EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (ECIH) is dispatched to manage a cyber incident at a multinational firm where a ransomware attack has encrypted critical data. While preserving the evidence, the handler discovered a suspicious email attachment on an affected system. What should be the handler's next step?
- A. Open the attachment on the affected system for instant analysis.
- B. Reply to the suspicious email to negotiate with the attackers.
- C. Delete the email and its attachments from the affected system.
- D. Transfer the suspicious email and attachments to a digital forensics' lab.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 173
XYZ Corp. recently shifted its infrastructure to Microsoft Azure and soon after faced an unexpected data breach. The event led to confidential data being accessed by an unauthorized user. As the newly appointed EC-Council Certified Incident Handler, you are tasked with improving the incident response strategy to prevent such security incidents in the future. What is the best course of action?
- A. Activate Azure disk encryption for all data stored in the cloud.
- B. Transition all operations to Azure private network to enhance control over data.
- C. Set up Azure Security Center and enable just-in-time VM access.
- D. Implement Azure network security groups to limit access to resources.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 174
Following a security alert, the incident response team at a legal consulting firm suspects that an employee used a USB storage device to exfiltrate confidential client data. To confirm which USB device was connected and gather timestamps and identifiers, which method is most effective?
- A. Scan network logs for USB file upload patterns.
- B. Check Windows registry entries under Enum\USB.
- C. Review Windows SetupAPI.dev.log file entries.
- D. Use WHOIS lookup to trace USB activity.
Answer: B
Explanation:
ECIH forensic readiness guidance identifies the Windows Registry as a primary source for USB device artifacts. The Enum\USB registry key stores vendor IDs, product IDs, serial numbers, and connection history.
Option A is correct because it provides direct evidence of which USB devices were connected, when they were installed, and on which system-critical for insider investigations.
Option B cannot reliably identify physical USB usage. Option C contains driver installation data but is less comprehensive. Option D is irrelevant.
Registry analysis is a foundational forensic technique in ECIH, making Option A correct.
NEW QUESTION # 175
As part of the incident handling team in a large organization, you are tasked to configure Suricata IDS for network security monitoring in a virtual environment. You've set up the system correctly, but it does not detect ICMP activity from the Windows 10 virtual machine. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?
- A. The ICMP rule was not properly defined in the suricata.rules file.
- B. The Windows 10 machine was not pinged after starting the Suricata engine.
- C. The rule file suricata.rules was not correctly added in the suricata.yaml configuration file.
- D. The HOME.NET parameter in suricata.yaml is not properly defined.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 176
EnviroTech, a global environmental research institute, faced anomalies in six months of satellite weather data. Unauthorized data modification entries were found in logs, occurring in microbursts with minimal traces. While the intent was unclear, the implications were significant. What's the optimal response?
- A. Isolate the affected systems, initiate a thorough forensic examination, and revert to the most recent unaltered backup.
- B. Approach international cybersecurity agencies, speculating a nation-state actor attempting to manipulate climate data.
- C. Immediately release a public statement highlighting discrepancies, urging other institutions to cross-check their data.
- D. Collaborate with other global institutes, sharing data to identify the point of discrepancy without revealing the potential breach.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This scenario requires decisive action across containment, analysis, and recovery, as defined in the ECIH incident handling lifecycle.
Option C is correct because isolating affected systems prevents further manipulation, forensic examination identifies scope and method, and restoring from a verified clean backup ensures data integrity. ECIH emphasizes verified restoration only after investigation begins.
Options A, B, and D are premature or speculative and risk misinformation.
NEW QUESTION # 177
The largest number of cyber-attacks are conducted by:
- A. Outsiders
- B. Suppliers
- C. Insiders
- D. Business partners
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 178
In the lead-up to a major product launch, a technology company reviews its endpoint security strategy to safeguard its intellectual property against potential cyber threats. The company utilizes a wide range of endpoints, from developers' laptops to test servers running in a hybrid cloud environment. Recognizing the heightened risk of targeted attacks during this critical period, what is the most essential element to incorporate into their incident response strategy for endpoints?
- A. An employee training program focused on phishing and social engineering defense.
- B. Comprehensive encryption strategies for data at rest and in transit across all endpoints.
- C. A dedicated crisis management team capable of rapid decision-making during a security incident.
- D. A robust endpoint detection and response (EDR) system with automated response capabilities.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The ECIH Endpoint Security module identifies EDR systems as the cornerstone of modern endpoint incident response. Advanced attacks targeting intellectual property often bypass traditional antivirus controls.
Option C is correct because EDR provides continuous monitoring, behavioral detection, rapid containment, and automated response across endpoints. This capability is critical during high-risk periods such as product launches.
Options A, B, and D are important but insufficient alone for real-time detection and response.
Therefore, deploying a robust EDR system is essential.
NEW QUESTION # 179
Nervous Nat often sends emails with screenshots of what he thinks are serious incidents, but they always turn out to be false positives. Today, he sends another screenshot, suspecting a nation-state attack. As usual, you go through your list of questions, check your resources for information to determine whether the screenshot shows a real attack, and determine the condition of your network. Which step of IR did you just perform?
- A. Remediation
- B. Preparation
- C. Detection anc analysis (or identification)
- D. Recovery
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you receive a screenshot from Nervous Nat and go through a list of questions, check resources for information to determine the nature of the screenshot, and assess the condition of your network, you are engaging in the Detection and Analysis (or Identification) phase of Incident Response (IR). This phase is about identifying potential security incidents based on reported concerns, anomalies detected by security tools, or through the analysis of security alerts. In this scenario, despite the historical context of false positives, each report is treated seriously, requiring you to collect and analyze information to determine whether a real attack is happening. This involves verifying the validity of the incident, assessing its nature, scope, and impact, and deciding on the appropriate next steps. The detection and analysis phase is critical for determining the course of the IR process, including whether escalation is needed and what response measures should be initiated.References:The ECIH v3 certification materials outline the Incident Response process, detailing steps from preparation, detection and analysis, containment, eradication, and recovery, to post-incident activities, highlighting the importance of thorough detection and analysis as the foundation for effective incident management.
NEW QUESTION # 180
Which of the following encoding techniques replaces unusual ASCII characters with "%" followed by the character's two-digit ASCII code expressed in hexadecimal?
- A. HTML encoding
- B. URL encoding
- C. Base64 encoding
- D. Unicode encoding
Answer: B
Explanation:
URL encoding, also known as percent-encoding, is a mechanism for encoding information in a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) under certain circumstances. This technique involves replacing unsafe ASCII characters with a "%" followed by two hexadecimal digits that represent the character's ASCII code. This is necessary for embedding characters that are not allowed in URLs directly, such as spaces and symbols, or characters that have special meanings within URLs, ensuring that the URL is correctly interpreted by web browsers and servers.
NEW QUESTION # 181
XYZ Inc. was affected by a malware attack and James, being the incident handling and response (IH&R) team personnel handling the incident, found out that the root cause of the incident is a backdoor that has bypassed the security perimeter due to an existing vulnerability in the deployed firewall. James had contained the spread of the infection and removed the malware completely. Now the organization asked him to perform incident impact assessment to identify the impact of the incident over the organization and he was also asked to prepare a detailed report of the incident.
Which of the following stages in IH&R process is James working on?
- A. Post-incident activities
- B. Eradication
- C. Evidence gathering and forensics analysis
- D. Notification
Answer: A
Explanation:
James is working on the post-incident activities stage of the Incident Handling and Response (IH&R) process.
After containing the spread of the infection and removing the malware, the focus shifts to assessing the impact of the incident on the organization and preparing a detailed report. This phase involves analyzing the extent of the damage, determining the cost of the attack, evaluating how well the incident was managed, and identifying lessons learned to improve future response efforts. The objective is to restore systems to normal operation, ensure no remnants of the threat remain, and implement measures to prevent recurrence.References:Incident Handler (ECIH v3) courses and study guides outline the IH&R process, emphasizing the importance of post-incident activities for organizational recovery and improvement of future security measures.
NEW QUESTION # 182
An incident handler is analyzing email headers to find out suspicious emails.
Which of the following tools he/she must use in order to accomplish the task?
- A. SPAMfighter
- B. Barracuda Email Security Gateway
- C. Gophish
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 183
Farheen is an incident responder at reputed IT Firm based in Florida. Farheen was asked to investigate a recent cybercrime faced by the organization. As part of this process, she collected static data from a victim system. She used DD tool command to perform forensic duplication to obtain an NTFS image of the original disk. She created a sector-by-sector mirror imaging of the disk and saved the output image file as image.dd.
Identify the static data collection process step performed by Farheen while collecting static data.
- A. Administrative consideration
- B. Comparison
- C. Physical presentation
- D. System preservation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Farheen's activity of using the DD tool to create a sector-by-sector mirror image of the original disk is an example of system preservation. This process is crucial in digital forensics for creating an exact copy of a storage device to ensure that the original data remains unchanged during the investigation. By making a forensic duplication, or image, of the disk, Farheen ensures that the static data on the disk is preserved in its current state for thorough analysis, without altering the original evidence. This step allows investigators to work with a precise replica of the data, protecting the integrity of the original evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 184
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The ECIH certification exam is a multiple-choice exam that is administered by EC-Council. 212-89 exam consists of 50 questions and has a duration of 120 minutes. 212-89 exam is designed to test an individual's knowledge and understanding of various cybersecurity concepts, including incident handling and response, network security, and malware analysis.
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